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坏呼呼嘿嘿 · 2023年07月22日

请问第三句话这两种方法分别怎么做呢

NO.PZ2022123002000025

问题如下:

Evelyn Weismann, a CFA Level I candidate, is a research analyst at Bay Area Investments, which specializes in derivatives and currency management. Bluerock Holdings, a US-based firm and an institutional client of Bay Area, is looking to increase its footprint in international markets. Bluerock is in the process of conducting due diligence to acquire Concord Associates, which is domiciled in London. Concord Associates has overall holdings amounting to GBP 400 million. Liam Mason, CEO of Bluerock, meets with Weismann and expresses his intention to mitigate the GBP currency risk before closing on the acquisition of Concord. Weismann makes the following three recommendations:

Recommendation 1: Implement an ATM call option on GBP/USD to protect the exposure against appreciation of the base currency.

Recommendation 2: Implement a risk reversal strategy by buying an ATM GBP/USD call option and buying an OTM GBP/USD put option.

Recommendation 3: Use a knock-in/knock-out option to receive an all-or-none asymmetric payoff when the exchange rate touches a pre-specified level.

Which of Weismann’s recommendations is most likely correct?

选项:

A.

Recommendation 1

B.

Recommendation 2

C.

Recommendation 3

解释:

Correct Answer: A

Recommendation 1 is correct.

If the base currency, USD, is appreciated against GBP, then the Concord Associates’ holdings of GBP 400 million will buy fewer USD in the future when the acquisition is completed.

The hedge is implemented in protecting against an appreciation of the base currency of the P/B quote, the USD. The hedge is established with an ATM call option (a long position in the USD).

P/B refers to the price of one unit of the base currency, “B,” expressed in terms of the price currency, “P.”

Recommendation 2 is incorrect.

Risk reversal, also referred to as a collar strategy, is created by buying stock and by simultaneously buying puts to protect the position against downside risk and selling calls to offset the cost.

Recommendation 3 is incorrect.

All-or-none asymmetric payoff is characteristic of a binary option and not a knock-in/knock-out option.

请问第三句话这两种方法分别怎么做呢

1 个答案

pzqa31 · 2023年07月22日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


1.Knock in 分为向上或者向下敲入。比如一个down in put option(向下敲入的knock in put option),敲入价是110,行权价是100,当前股价是120.

则当股价从120下跌的过程中,在没有下跌达到110的时候,这个put是没有生效的;当股价继续下跌达到110及110以下的时候,这个put才生效,比如现在下跌到了105,put是生效的,但是并没有行权,是OTM 的put;只有股价继续下跌达到100及100以下的时候,这个put才变为ITM的put,才可以行权。

2.同样knock out 也分为向上和向下敲出。

比如一个up out call(向上敲出的call option),敲出价是120,行权价是100.当前股价是80.所以现在call是生效的,且是OTM 的call,当股价从80开始上涨,涨到100但小于120的时候,这个call是ITM的call。但是若股价继续上涨,涨到了130(大于敲出价120了),则这个call 被敲出了,即失效了。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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