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holicess · 2023年07月20日

为什么I/Y用的不是EAR/4?

NO.PZ2017092702000017

问题如下:

Given a stated annual interest rate of 6% compounded quarterly, the level amount that, deposited quarterly, will grow to £25,000 at the end of 10 years is closest to:

选项:

A.

£461.

B.

£474.

C.

£836.

解释:

A is correct.

To solve for an annuity (A) payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, and number of periods is known, use the following equation:

lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×1010.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frac rm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}

A=460.68

计算器按法:

6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5,N=10*4=40,FV=25000,PV=0,CPT PMT=-460.6775.


为什么I/Y用的不是EAR/4?

1 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2023年07月21日

同学你好,

EAR已经是代表了利滚利效果的实际利率。永远也不会用EAR去除以计息频率。

只有名义上的报价利率,即stated annual interest rate才会除以计息频率来得到实际利率。

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NO.PZ2017092702000017问题如下 Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to:A.£461.B.£474.C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr​(1+mrs​​)mN−1​]25,000=A[40.06​(1+40.06​)4×10−1​]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5,N=10*4=40,FV=25000,PV=0,CPT PMT=-460.6775. 题目从哪里可以看出要求的是PMT

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