Arthas · 2023年07月19日
NO.PZ2017092702000008
问题如下：
An investment pays €300 annually for five years, with the first payment occurring today. The present value (PV) of the investment discounted at a 4% annual rate is closest to:
选项：
A.€1,336.
B.€1,389.
C.€1,625.
解释：
B is correct,
as shown in the following calculation for an annuity (A) due:
where A = €300, r = 0.04, and N = 5.
PV = €1,388.97, or €1,389.
是不是求PV就设FV是0，求FV就设PV是0呀？
星星_品职助教 · 2023年07月19日
同学你好，
数量科目中基本可以这样计算。
PV是0时点的独立现金流，如果期初没有独立的现金流，则PV=0。FV是期末时点的独立现金流，如果期末没有独立的现金流，则FV=0。例如本题，在终点（5时点）上是没有独立现金流的，所以求PV时，FV就要设置为0。
（注：独立现金流指得是除PMT以外的现金流，例如本题0时点上的300就是PMT的一部分，而不是PV值，所以本题如果要计算FV的话，PV依然是0）。
数量科目里基本上不会涉及到有期初投资或者期末本金返还的问题。所以数量中基本可以这样设置，即“求PV就设FV是0，求FV就设PV是0”。在固收科目中会有期末现金流，所以FV一般不是0，可以届时再结合具体题目分析。
NO.PZ2017092702000008 问题如下 investment pays €300 annually for five years, with the first payment occurring toy. The present value (PV) of the investment scountea 4% annurate is closest to: A.€1,336. B.€1,389. C.€1,625. B is correct,shown in the following calculation for annuity (e:PV=A[1−1(1+r)Nr](1+r)PV=A{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+r)}^N}}r\rbrack}{(1+r)}PV=A[r1−(1+r)N1](1+r)where A = €300, r = 0.04, anN = 5.PV=300[1−1(1+0.4)50.04](1.04)PV=300{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+0.4)}^5}}{0.04}\rbrack}{(1.04)}PV=300[0.041−(1+0.4)51](1.04)PV = €1,388.97, or ≈\approx≈ €1,389. 助教给到的其他人解答的计算器算出来的是后付年金，不是答案。但题目是先付年金，所以计算器要怎么按
NO.PZ2017092702000008 问题如下 investment pays €300 annually for five years, with the first payment occurring toy. The present value (PV) of the investment scountea 4% annurate is closest to: A.€1,336. B.€1,389. C.€1,625. B is correct,shown in the following calculation for annuity (e:PV=A[1−1(1+r)Nr](1+r)PV=A{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+r)}^N}}r\rbrack}{(1+r)}PV=A[r1−(1+r)N1](1+r)where A = €300, r = 0.04, anN = 5.PV=300[1−1(1+0.4)50.04](1.04)PV=300{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+0.4)}^5}}{0.04}\rbrack}{(1.04)}PV=300[0.041−(1+0.4)51](1.04)PV = €1,388.97, or ≈\approx≈ €1,389. N=5, I/Y=4,FV=0,PMT=300, CPT PV=1335.5
NO.PZ2017092702000008 问题如下 investment pays €300 annually for five years, with the first payment occurring toy. The present value (PV) of the investment scountea 4% annurate is closest to: A.€1,336. B.€1,389. C.€1,625. B is correct,shown in the following calculation for annuity (e:PV=A[1−1(1+r)Nr](1+r)PV=A{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+r)}^N}}r\rbrack}{(1+r)}PV=A[r1−(1+r)N1](1+r)where A = €300, r = 0.04, anN = 5.PV=300[1−1(1+0.4)50.04](1.04)PV=300{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+0.4)}^5}}{0.04}\rbrack}{(1.04)}PV=300[0.041−(1+0.4)51](1.04)PV = €1,388.97, or ≈\approx≈ €1,389. 請問r不是應該等于0.04嗎，爲何會有個(1+0.4)^5？
NO.PZ2017092702000008 问题如下 investment pays €300 annually for five years, with the first payment occurring toy. The present value (PV) of the investment scountea 4% annurate is closest to: A.€1,336. B.€1,389. C.€1,625. B is correct,shown in the following calculation for annuity (e:PV=A[1−1(1+r)Nr](1+r)PV=A{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+r)}^N}}r\rbrack}{(1+r)}PV=A[r1−(1+r)N1](1+r)where A = €300, r = 0.04, anN = 5.PV=300[1−1(1+0.4)50.04](1.04)PV=300{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+0.4)}^5}}{0.04}\rbrack}{(1.04)}PV=300[0.041−(1+0.4)51](1.04)PV = €1,388.97, or ≈\approx≈ €1,389. 请问为什么我用计算器BGN模式算出来是1498？求具体计算器怎么按谢谢
