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上小学 · 2023年07月16日

您好,烦请详细解释一下每个选项?谢谢

NO.PZ2020033002000085

问题如下:

Durian Bank's risk control manager is using Creditrisk + to calculate the bank's 1% credit var. Durian Bank now has two large loans, one is 20 million US dollars, the other is 30 million US dollars, the two are not correlated. Which of the following conclusions about credit var is wrong?

I.Both VaR and WCL could be equal to zero.

II.Expected loss could exceed VaR

III.Expected loss is always smaller than the VAR.

选项:

A.

I and III

B.

I ONLY

C.

I and II.

D.III.

解释:

D is correct.

考点:Credit VaR

解析:比如两笔贷款的违约概率都是0.5%,两者联立的不违约概率是0.995*0.995等于99.0025%。此时99%的credit var等于0。worst case loss也是0。而expected loss不为零,比var和wcl大。

希望从理论上彻底讲清楚,书上解释看不懂。

1 个答案
已采纳答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2023年07月16日

同学你好,这题其实就是问定义,credit var=WCL- EL,而且损失的数值不会是负数,即最小为0。

然后就是解析里举例了一个情景,即2个贷款都有极小的PD,导致计算出来的99%分位点的损失还是0,那么此时99%的WCL就是0,credit var也因此等于0,所以I描述说WCL和var都可能是0是对的。

而EL只要有PD,那就一定能算出来这么一丢丢损失的期望,所以EL是有数值的,即EL一定大于0.

所以按照上面的例子,EL就大于VAR了,II也正确。

同理III 说EL永远都小VAR,错误。

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