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四喜丸子 · 2023年07月07日

这道题的PMT为什么是-80

NO.PZ2022090805000001

问题如下:

A 20-year $1,000 fixed-rate non-callable bond with 8% annual coupons currently sells for $1,105.94. Assuming a 30% marginal tax rate and an additional risk premium for equity relative to debt of 5%, the cost of equity using the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach is closest to:

选项:

A.9.90% B.12.00% C.13.00%

解释:

Solution

B is correct. First, determine the yield to maturity, which is the discount rate that sets the bond price to $1,105.94 and is equal to 7%. This calculation can be done with a financial calculator:

FV = –$1,000, PV = $1,105.94, N = 20, PMT = –$80, solve for i, which will equal 7%.

The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach is calculated by adding a risk premium to the cost of debt (i.e., the yield to maturity for the debt), making the cost of equity 12.00% (= 7% +5%).

A is incorrect because it uses the after-tax cost of debt: 9.90% = 7% × (1 – 30%) + 5%.

C is incorrect because it uses the coupon rate instead of the yield-to-maturity: 13.00% = 8% + 5%.

 请问老师,这道题的PMT为什么是-80?


谢谢老师。

1 个答案
已采纳答案

王琛_品职助教 · 2023年07月10日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


1

解析是站在「公司」的角度哈

计算「公司」承担的资本成本,对象应该是「公司」

只不过为了理解方便,我们有时候是在计算「投资者」获得的收益,对象是「投资者」

因为二者是等价的,公司承担的资本成本,和投资者获得的收益是相同的

也请参考:https://class.pzacademy.com/qa/94844

2

如果同学站在投资者的角度,也可以算出资本成本

N=20, PMT=80, PV=-1,105.94, FV=1000, solve for I/Y=7%

两种理解角度都可以哈,同学看做题时,哪种方法更好理解,只要看清现金流的符号,答案算对即可

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