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双 · 2023年05月01日

exposure

NO.PZ2023040701000113

问题如下:

FIQ Bank is a highly rated corporate and institutional bank that operates a client facing credit default swap (CDS) desk. Larry Eckle is a CDS client strategist. Mark Priore is FIQ’s chief CDS trader. Eckle and Priore are meeting with Brian Bregen, a portfolio manager for BLB Fund, to discuss investment and trading strategies for bonds, CDSs, and equities.

Bregen begins the discussion by asking for a refresher on basic CDS concepts and parameters. Eckle replies that a CDS includes both a premium leg and a payment leg and that expected loss is among the functions that affect its price. Eckle provides information for a bond issued by Apollo Company.

Exhibit 1 Information for Apollo Bond

Based on the information in Exhibit 1, the expected loss for Apollo bond is likely closest to:

选项:

A.

$35.28.

B.

$48.03.

C.

$90.00.

解释:

Correct Answer: B

Expected loss = Summation of probability of default × Loss given default for each discrete cash flow, as illustrated


Calculation:

Cash flow (CF): $50.00 interest coupons, $1,000.00 principal repayment

Expected loss (EL) = CF × Conditional probability of default (PD) × Loss given default (LGD), where LGD = 1 – Recovery rate

Conditional probability of default:

Year 1 PD = 2.0% = 2% Hazard rate

[98% no default in Year 1 (100% – 2% PD)].

Year 2 PD = 4.45% = 2.0% (Y1) + 2.45% (Y2)

[(2.5% Hazard rate × 98% No default Y1); 95.50% no default in Year 2 (100% – 4.5% PD)].

Year 3 PD = 7.317% = 2.0% (Y1) + 2.45% (Y2) + 2.867% (Y3)

[(3.0% Hazard rate × 0.955 No default Y2); 92.684% no default in Year 3 (100% – 7.317%PD)].

Expected loss = $48.03, where

Year 1 = $50.00 CF × (2.00% Y1 PD × 0.60 LGD) = $0.60.

Year 2 = $50.00 CF × (4.45% Y2 PD × 0.60 LGD) = $1.34.

Year 3 = $1,050.00 CF × (7.316% Y3 PD × 0.60 LGD) = $46.09.

A is incorrect. An expected loss of $35.28 incorrectly presumes an equivalent hazard rate of 2% for each year:

1 Probability of survival represents the probability of no default: 0.98 × 0.98 ×0.98 = 0.94119.

2 Probability of default: 1.0 – Probability of survival = 1 – 0.94119 = 0.058810 = 5.8810%.

3 Expected loss = Probability of default × Loss given default × Face amount = 5.8810% × 60% × $1,000 = $35.28.

C is incorrect. An expected loss of $90.00 is incorrectly determined by the following calculation: $1,000 (face amount of the bond) × 15.00% (summation of the three years of 5.00% interest coupons) × (1.0 – 0.40 Recovery rate).

这里每年的exposure为什么只考虑当年的现金流,比如第一年只考虑coupon,而不是像前面求risky bond value一样,是考虑本金的现值?

2 个答案

pzqa31 · 2024年05月06日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


因为信用债每个节点都存在违约的可能性,不一定能回收全部本金啊。

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

pzqa31 · 2023年05月01日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


同学,你说的那种是基于利率二叉树的计算,因为每期利率是变化的,所以需要一期一期往前折现,这道题是假设折现率是统一的,所以不用那样做。

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

PZmomo · 2024年05月04日

基础班讲义184页,也不是基于二叉树的计算啊,每一期的exposure不是通过折现得到的V加上当期coupon吗?

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NO.PZ2023040701000113 问题如下 FIQ Bank is a highly ratecorporate aninstitutionbank thoperates a client facing cret fault sw(C) sk. Larry Eckle is a C client strategist. Mark Priore is FIQ’s chief C trar. Eckle anPriore are meeting with BriBregen, a portfolio manager for BLB Fun to scuss investment antrang strategies for bon, Cs, anequities. Bregen begins the scussion asking for a refresher on basic C concepts anparameters. Eckle replies tha C inclus both a premium leg ana payment leg anthexpecteloss is among the functions thaffeits price. Eckle provis information for a bonissueApollo Company. Exhibit 1 Information for Apollo Bonaseon theinformation in Exhibit 1, the expecteloss for Apollo bonis likely closestto: A.$35.28. B.$48.03. C.$90.00. CorreAnswer: BExpecteloss = Summation of probability of fault × Loss given fault for eascrete cash flow, illustratealculation:Cash flow (CF):$50.00 interest coupons, $1,000.00 principrepaymentExpecteloss (EL)= × Contionprobability of fault (P × Loss given fault (LG,where LG= 1 – Recovery rateContionalprobability of fault:Ye1 P= 2.0% =2% Hazarrate[98% no fault inYe1 (100% – 2% P].Ye2 P= 4.45%= 2.0% (Y1) + 2.45% (Y2)[(2.5% Hazarrate× 98% No fault Y1); 95.50% no fault in Ye2 (100% – 4.5% P].Ye3 P= 7.317%= 2.0% (Y1) + 2.45% (Y2) + 2.867% (Y3)[(3.0% Hazarrate× 0.955 No fault Y2); 92.684% no fault in Ye3 (100% – 7.317%P].Expecteloss =$48.03, whereYe1 = $50.00 CF× (2.00% Y1 P× 0.60 LG = $0.60.Ye2 = $50.00 CF× (4.45% Y2 P× 0.60 LG = $1.34.Ye3 = $1,050.00× (7.316% Y3 P× 0.60 LG = $46.09.A is incorrect. Anexpecteloss of $35.28 incorrectly presumes equivalent hazarrate of 2%for eayear:1 Probability ofsurvivrepresents the probability of no fault: 0.98 × 0.98 ×0.98 = 0.94119.2 Probability offault: 1.0 – Probability of surviv= 1 – 0.94119 = 0.058810 = 5.8810%.3 Expecteloss =Probability of fault × Loss given fault × Faamount = 5.8810% × 60% ×$1,000 = $35.28.C is incorrect. Anexpecteloss of $90.00 is incorrectly terminethe following calculation:$1,000 (faamount of the bon × 15.00% (summation of the three years of5.00% interest coupons) × (1.0 – 0.40 Recovery rate). 我算第一年违约2%第二年违约98%*2.5%第三年违约98%*97.5%*3%这三个年头不管哪个年头违约,损失都是1050*60%我相当于穷举了所有破产的可能性并且加在一起求期望,所以最后的结果就是(2%+98%*2.5%+98%*97.5%*3%)*1050*60%=46.09,请问这个逻辑错误在哪。

2024-07-24 11:38 2 · 回答

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2023-08-26 11:57 1 · 回答

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2023-07-26 22:21 1 · 回答

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2023-06-27 18:04 3 · 回答