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lion · 2023年03月09日

求解释。。。。

NO.PZ2020021203000073

问题如下:

A seven-month call option pays dividends of USD 0.5 in three months and six months. The strike price is USD 40. Assume a constant risk-free rate of 8% per annum (annually compounded) for all maturities. Is it ever optimal to exercise the option before maturity? Explain.

解释:

It is only optimal to exercise immediately before a dividend payment. Immediately before the three-month payment, the option holder should wait, because there are three months until the next dividend payment and K - K* is greater than the dividend payment:

KK=40401.080.25=0.76>0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{0.25}}=0.76>0.5

Exercise can be optimal immediately before the six-month dividend payment because there is only one month to maturity and K - K* is less than the dividend payment:

KK=40401.081/12=0.26<0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{1/12}}=0.26<0.5

请问这是基础课程哪一块的知识点

2 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2023年05月30日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


基础班是从FRM官方教材出发,介绍基础知识点。FRM的教材确实有一些毛病,就是有部分知识点讲的很粗糙,直接给一个结论,没有详细介绍原理。


FRM考试中的题目全都是选择题,没有问答题。但是官方教材却给了一些问答题,我们也不好直接删掉。


建议同学在听完基础班之后做题的时候,如果实在没有一点头绪,就对照着简答题的答案,再去看讲义。比如这道题既然提及了dividend和exercise before maturiy,那么肯定是在说美式期权的dividend的问题,这样就锁定了讲义的位置,找关键字“never optimal, if .....” 意思是如果.....成立,那么就不应该提前行权。



CFA协会考虑到一部分考生是零基础的,所以教材和题目讲的比较细致,FRM的GARP协会比较高冷。。。不过考试是没有问答题的,这一点放心。

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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

李坏_品职助教 · 2023年03月09日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


这个题目给了一个美式看涨期权,这个期权在3个月和6个月后会分别支付0.5USD的股息。行权价格为40USD,问你期权是否应该提前行权?



美式看涨期权最优的行权时间是在除权除息日之前立刻行权(因为发完股息之后股价会跌下去,除息),第一次行权的时间就是3个月的时候,但是在第一次支付股息之前,X - PV(X) > 0.5 USD,所以不适合在此时提前行权。


第二次支付股息之前是6个月后,那时的X - PV(X) < 0.5 USD,所以此时可以提前行权。

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

𝒜𝒩𝒥𝒜 安雅🎃 · 2023年05月30日

助教你好,我连听了好几个FRM一级章节的课程,也做了一些小皇冠的题目,但为什么这些题目在基础班里面都没有例题或者更细致的讲解?比如这道题是3月和6月会分红,基础班没有例题,也没讲过遇到两个分红该怎么处理。FRM课程的题目是以问答题居多吗?跟CFA学起来的体验好不一样啊。

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NO.PZ2020021203000073问题如下A seven-month call option pays vin of US0.5 in three months ansix months. The strike priis US40. Assume a constant risk-free rate of 8% per annum (annually compoun for all maturities. Is it ever optimto exercise the option before maturity? Explain. It is only optimto exercise immeately before a vinpayment. Immeately before the three-month payment, the option holr shoulwait, because there are three months until the next vinpayment anK - K* is greater ththe vinpayment:K−K∗=40−401.080.25=0.76 0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{0.25}}=0.76 0.5K−K∗=40−1.080.2540​=0.76 0.5Exercise coptimimmeately before the six-month vinpayment because there is only one month to maturity anK - K* is less ththe vinpayment:K−K∗=40−401.081/12=0.26 0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{1/12}}=0.26 0.5K−K∗=40−1.081/1240​=0.26 0.5这里说annually compoun,怎么用e折现呢,e不是连续复利嘛?

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