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黄路迦 · 2023年03月08日

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NO.PZ201809170300000107

问题如下:

Based on Exhibits 1 and 2 and the proposed single-stage FCFF model, the intrinsic value of Company C’s equity is closest to:

选项:

A.

$277,907 million.

B.

$295,876 million.

C.

$306,595 million.

解释:

C is correct. Company C’s firm value is calculated as follows:

The required rate of return on equity for Company C is

r = E(Ri) = RF + βi[E(RM)  RF] = 3% + 1.1(7%) = 10.7%.

WACC = rd (1 - Tax rate) + re

WACC = 0.40(6%)(1  0.30) + 0.60(10.7%) = 1.68% + 6.42% = 8.10%

FCFF for the most recent year for Company C is calculated as follows:

Investment in working capital is found by adding the increase in accounts receivable, the increase in inventories, the decrease in accounts payable, and the increase in other current liabilities: $536 million  $803 million  $3 million + $350 million = $992 million.

FCFF is expected to grow at 5.0% indefinitely. Thus,

Firm value = =  = = $510,990.97 million

The value of equity is the value of the firm minus the value of debt. The value of debt is found by multiplying the target debt ratio by the total firm value:

Debt value = 0.40($510,990.97) = $204,396.39

Therefore, equity value = $510,990.97  $204,396.39 = $306,594.58 million.

fcff的公式里是+int(1- T),但题目中不是给了-552吗,难道不应该用-552*(1-30%)吗?

1 个答案

王园圆_品职助教 · 2023年03月08日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


同学你好,不是的哦,一般来说,interest expense肯定是净现金流出,所以表一中的()表示的就是利息费用导致的现金净流出

而FCFF公式中是需要将利息费用这笔现金流出加回的,因为对于公司来说,债权人是公司内部人,所以给到债权人的这笔现金流出应该加回——所以FCFF公式这里的+就是加回纯粹的利息费用现金流流出,即加回利息费用*(1-t)的绝对值的意思

所以这里是加回552*(1-30%)而不是减去

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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