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小蜜蜂jj1 · 2023年02月21日

48000是哪里来的?

NO.PZ2016012102000133

问题如下:

Ted Ltd. recently purchased a manufactoring machine for $60,000, which is expected to generate annual cash inflow of $25,000 for six years. The firm will depreciate the machine over six years for accounting purpose. However, the tax authority estimates the machine's useful life of 5 years. Assume tax rate is 40%, and the machines has no salvage value. What is the income tax expense of Ted Ltd. in year 6 if straight-line method is used?

选项:

A.

$10,000.

B.

$5,200.

C.

$6,000.

解释:

C is correct.

考点: 递延所得税的计算

解析:题目问第六年的income tax expense,也就是financial accounting的所得税费用。

Income tax expense = Current tax expense + ΔDTL - ΔDTA

Current tax expense =Taxable income×Current tax rate


accounting base 和tax base 的数字指的是depreciable asset扣掉累积折旧的账面价值。第五年年末的时候,accounting base 账面价值还剩10000,tax base 账面已经是零,所以DTL算出来是4000,第六年年末的的时候accounting base和tax base都是零了,所以第六年就没有DTL了,也就是之前累积的DTL第六年实际上已经回转了。

前期税务局算的折旧费用多,公司交的税少,第六年的时候,税务局算的报表已经没有折旧费用了,所以算的应税所得就高了,公司应该交的税就高了,相当于是前期少交的税这一年要补交上了。所以第六年没有新增的DTL,反而是把以前攒下的DTL回转了,相当于△DTL就等于-4000,所以income tax expense是10,000-4,000=6000

第六年的current tax expense=25000×40%=10000

第六年的Income tax expense=10000+(-4000)=6000

为啥完全看不懂答案解释啊啊😭

1 个答案

lynn_品职助教 · 2023年02月22日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


因为答案解释得很详细把所有表都列出来了。其实我们从原理来理解也行。


本题问的是第6年的时候的income tax expenses是多少


我们按照上课时候老师说的AB-TB的方法来计算DTA或是DTL


由于会计上按照6年折旧而税法上按照5年折旧,所以第6年年初的时候,税法上该资产已经不存在了,TB = 0


会计上第6年的时候该资产期初还有1年的折旧价值,所以AB = 60000/6 = 10000


AB-TB = 10000*tax rate =10000*40% = 4000>0——是第6年年初的DTL


而到第6年年末,由于会计上该资产已经折旧完毕,AB = 0,并且此时TB =0


所以第6年年末的DTL = 0


因而ΔDTL = 年末DTL-年初DTL = 0 -4000 = -4000


此时来计算第六年的income tax expenses = current tax expenses + ΔDTL = 25000*40% + (-4000) = 6000

----------------------------------------------
就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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