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Kathy苏苏 · 2023年02月20日

麻烦讲解下,谢谢

NO.PZ2020021203000072

问题如下:

A four-month European call option on a stock is currently selling for USD 2.50. The current stock price is USD 54, and the strike price is USD 50. A dividend of USD 1.50 is expected in one month. The risk-free interest rate is 3% per annum (annually compounded) for all maturities. What opportunities are there for an arbitrageur?

选项:

解释:

The lower bound for the option price is

SPV(K)PV(Divs)=54501.031/31.51.031/12=2.99S-PV(K)-PV(Divs)=54-\frac{50}{1.03^{1/3}}-\frac{1.5}{1.03^{1/12}}=2.99

The option is selling for less than its lower bound. An arbitrageur can buy the option and short the stock for an initial cash inflow of USD 51.50. The arbitrageur has to pay dividends of USD 1.50 after one month.

If the option is exercised, the cost of closing out the short position will be USO 50. If it is not exercised, the cost of closing out the short position will be less than USD 50. The worst-case scenario for the arbitrageur is therefore:

Today: +51.50,

One month: -1.50, and

Four months: -50.00.

When the discount rate is zero, the sum of these cash flows will have zero present value. Any positive discount rate gives a positive sum of present values.

When the discount rate is zero, the sum of these cash flows will have zero present value. Any positive discount rate gives a positive sum of present values.麻烦讲解下这几句,谢谢

1 个答案

pzqa27 · 2023年02月21日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


这几句话需要联系上下文,上文说了

Today: +51.50,

One month: -1.50, and

Four months: -50.00.

然后这句话写的When the discount rate is zero,也就是折现率是0,the sum of these cash flows will have zero present value,这个就是字面意思,当折现率为0了,-1.5和-50折现完还是-1.5和-50,再和51.5加一起就是0.然后Any positive discount rate gives a positive sum of present values.当折现率是正数的时候,-1.5和-50折现后的总值肯定大于-1.5+(-50),因此再和51.5加一起肯定是正数,因此有一个正的现值

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NO.PZ2020021203000072问题如下A four-month Europecall option on a stois currently selling for US2.50. The current stopriis US54, anthe strike priis US50. A vinof US1.50 is expectein one month. The risk-free interest rate is 3% per annum (annually compoun for all maturities. Whopportunities are there for arbitrageur? The lower bounfor the option priisS−PV(K)−PV(vs)=54−501.031/3−1.51.031/12=2.99S-PV(K)-PV(vs)=54-\frac{50}{1.03^{1/3}}-\frac{1.5}{1.03^{1/12}}=2.99S−PV(K)−PV(vs)=54−1.031/350​−1.031/121.5​=2.99The option is selling for less thits lower boun arbitrageur cbuy the option anshort the stofor initicash inflow of US51.50. The arbitrageur hto pvin of US1.50 after one month.If the option is exercise the cost of closing out the short position will USO 50. If it is not exercise the cost of closing out the short position will less thUS50. The worst-case scenario for the arbitrageur is therefore:Toy: +51.50,One month: -1.50, anour months: -50.00.When the scount rate is zero, the sum of these cash flows will have zero present value. Any positive scount rate gives a positive sum of present values.If option is exercise the cost of closing short position is 50是什么意思啊

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NO.PZ2020021203000072 请问这道题的操作过程怎么理解?

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