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皓月 · 2023年02月13日

第一小问中不考虑swap吗?

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

NO.PZ201701230200000201

问题如下:

1. In his presentation of Investment 1, Smith could show that under the no-arbitrage principle, the forward price of a one-year government bond to be issued in one year is closest to:

选项:

A.

0.9662.

B.

0.9694.

C.

0.9780.

解释:

B is correct.

The forward pricing model is based on the no-arbitrage principle and is used to calculate a bond’s forward price based on the spot yield curve. The spot curve is constructed by using annualized rates from option-free and default risk-free zero-coupon bonds.

Equation 2: p(T*+T)=P(T*)F(T*,T); we need to solve for F(1,1).

P(1)=1/(1+0.0225) and p(2)=1/(1+0.0270)2,

F(1,1)=P(2)/P(1)=0.9481/0.9780=0.9694.

我用的是 2.25%+0.25% 和 2.7%+0.3%

2 个答案
已采纳答案

吴昊_品职助教 · 2023年02月14日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


swap spread,本质上也是一种溢价。swap spread=swap rate-government bond yield。在国债收益了的基础上加上这个溢价之后,就变成了swap rate。

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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

吴昊_品职助教 · 2023年02月13日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


不需要的,本题要我们求的是forward price,远期价格是远期利率而来。而远期利率可以直接从即期利率spot rate推导得到。所以用到的就是government spot rate。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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