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Pavel Korchagin · 2023年01月30日

为什么不是40-(-22)

NO.PZ2017102901000036

问题如下:

In 2014, a company using US GAAP made cash payments of $6 million for salaries, $2 million for interest expense, and $4 million for income taxes. Additional information for the company is provided in the table:

Based only on the information given, the company’s operating cash flow for 2014 is closest to:

选项:

A.

$6 million.

B.

$10 million.

C.

$14 million.

解释:

A is correct.

Operating cash flows = Cash received from customers – (Cash paid to suppliers + Cash paid to employees + Cash paid for other operating expenses +Cash paid for interest + Cash paid for income taxes)

Cash received from customers = Revenue + Decrease in accounts receivable

= $37 + $3= $40 million

Cash paid to suppliers = Cost of goods sold + Increase in inventory – Decrease in accounts payable

= $16 + $4 + $2 = $22 million

Therefore, the company’s operating cash flow = $40 –$22 – Cash paid for salaries – Cash paid for interest – Cash paid for taxes = $40 –$22 – $6 – $2 –$4= $6 million.

我理解是何老师说的那个公式最左边那一列的负号其实都没有数学意义,因为等号右边的全部项目的正负号都已经代表了现金流向,所以严格来讲左边应该全部改成加号,不然像这种题目做不出来

1 个答案

lynn_品职助教 · 2023年01月31日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


我理解是何老师说的那个公式最左边那一列的负号其实都没有数学意义,因为等号右边的全部项目的正负号都已经代表了现金流向,所以严格来讲左边应该全部改成加号,不然像这种题目做不出来


是的,现金流的题目这一点特别重要,有时候题目会特意在这里设置陷阱。不过这道题确实有点乱,同学也可以看到是2014年的题目了,正好拿来锻炼一下。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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