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jay1180 · 2023年01月11日

看了之前的答案

NO.PZ2018101901000020

问题如下:

All of the following are reasons that an apparent deviation from the efficient market hypothesis might not be anomalous except:

选项:

A.

The abnormal returns represent compensation for exposure to risk.

B.

Changing the asset pricing model makes the deviation to disappear.

C.

The deviation is well known or documented.

解释:

C is correct.

Bubbles and crashes are well-known and well-documented phenomena yet represent market anomalies.

选对了,但之前的答案说AB是一回事,为啥一样?

1 个答案

pzqa27 · 2023年01月11日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


举个例子好了,比如我现在用3因子模型测算出我有个超额收益,假如说是5%。那如果我换个模型,比如用4因子模型测一下,这个超额收益可能就变成4%了,这个就是B想说的,可能我换个模型一测就没有超额收益了,比如CAPM 就一个风险因子,而Fama3因子模型表示有3个风险因子,那么可能我用CAPM测一下超额收益是5%,FAMA模型一测我的超额收益是0%,也是说明了在CAPM里面,我其实没有测算价值风险因子和规模风险因子,只考虑了市场风险因子,这里的超额收益实际上应该是价值风险因子和规模风险因子带来的,而CAPM模型中不包含这俩因子,所以有超额收益,一旦我计量了价值风险因子和规模风险因子,那么这个超额收益就消失了,这个是A想说了。可以说B是A的子集吧

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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