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苏·Xu · 2022年11月06日

NO.PZ2018062007000071

问题如下:

For a risk-averse investor, the price of a risky asset, assuming no additional costs and benefits of holding the asset, is:

选项:

A.

unrelated to the risk-free rate.

B.

directly related to its level of risk.

C.

inversely related to its level of risk.

解释:

C is correct. An asset’s current price, S0, is determined by discounting the expected future price of the asset by r (the risk free rate) plus λ (the risk premium) over the period from 0 to T, as illustrated in the following equation:S0=E(ST)(1+r  +  λ)TS_0=\frac{E\left(S_T\right)}{\left(1+r\;+\;\lambda\right)^T}
Thus, an asset’s current price inversely relates to its level of risk via the related risk premium, λ.

A is incorrect because an asset’s current price in spot markets is calculated using the risk- free rate plus a risk premium. B is incorrect because an asset’s current price in spot markets is inversely related, not directly related, to its level of risk.

中文解析:

对风险资产定价的公式如下图,可知风险资产的价格与利率呈反向关系,选C


A为什么不对?

1 个答案

Lucky_品职助教 · 2022年11月09日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


公式中有r,与risk-free rate有关,不是无关

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

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