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深海里的星星 · 2018年04月17日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016082406000024 [ FRM II ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

D.

解释:

题目出错了,不是AA- A-的spread,是AA A

1 个答案

orange品职答疑助手 · 2018年04月17日

同学谢谢你,只是它这里AA-,A-后面应该是跟着rated的,然后把rated给省略掉了,不是代表评级里的“-”~

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NO.PZ2016082406000024 A two-yezero-coupon bonissueACo. is currently rateThe market expects thone yefrom now the probability ththe rating of Aremains is wngrato BBor is upgrato are, respectively, 80%, 15%, an5%. Suppose ththe risk-free rate is fl1% anthcret sprea for AA-, A-, anBBB-rateare fl80, 150, an280 basis points, respectively. All rates are compounannually. Whis the best approximation of the expectevalue of the zero-coupon bonone yefrom now? 97.41 97.37 94.89 92.44 ANSWER: A After one year, the bonbecomes a one-yezero-coupon bon The respective values are, for AanBBPAA=1001+0.0180=98.23P_{AA}=\frac{100}{1+0.0180}=98.23PAA​=1+0.0180100​=98.23, 97.56, an96.34. Note thprices are lower for lower ratings. The expectevalue is given P=∑πiPi=5%×98.23+80%×97.56+15%×96.34=97.41P=\sum\pi_iP_i=5\%\times98.23+80\%\times97.56+15\%\times96.34=97.41P=∑πi​Pi​=5%×98.23+80%×97.56+15%×96.34=97.41. 答案里为什么没有折2年现值呀?

2021-03-27 12:38 1 · 回答

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