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欲溺之鱼 · 2018年04月16日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000030 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

这道题MWRR是用IRR计算方法做吗?那计算器怎么按啊
2 个答案

源_品职助教 · 2018年04月24日

因为第一期只是又投入了100元的资金,所以就是-100。

注意这里是要计算实际发生的现金流,而非收益率。

源_品职助教 · 2018年04月16日

CF0=-10,

CF1=-100,

CF2=(10*1.14*1.08+100*1.08)

负号代表现金流流出,正号代表现金流流入。依次录入这些数据,之后点击CPT IRR即可。

欲溺之鱼 · 2018年04月24日

为什么CF1不用100*1.14

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NO.PZ2017092702000030问题如下the beginning of Ye1, a funh$10 million unr management; it earns a return of 14% for the year. The funattracts another $100 million the start of Ye2 anearns a return of 8% for thyear. The money-weighterate of return is most likely:A.less ththe time-weighterate of return. B.the same the time-weighterate of return. C.greater ththe time-weighterate of return.A is correct. The money-weighterate of return is founsetting the present value (PV) of investments into the funequto the PV of the funs terminvalue. Because most of the investment came ring Ye2, the measure will biasetowarthe performanof Ye2. Set the PV of investments equto the PV of the funs terminvalue: 10+1001+r=10×1.14×1.08+100×1.08(1+r)210+\frac{100}{1+r}=\frac{10\times1.14\times1.08+100\times1.08}{{(1+r)}^2}10+1+r100​=(1+r)210×1.14×1.08+100×1.08​ Solving for r results in r = 8.53%. The time-weightereturn of the funis =(1.14)(1.08)2−1=10.96\sqrt[2]{{(1.14)}{(1.08)}}-1=10.962(1.14)(1.08)​−1=10.96CF0 -10CF1 1.4-100CF2 100*0.08+10*0.08

2023-11-11 19:27 2 · 回答

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2023-09-06 00:23 1 · 回答

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2022-11-20 20:37 1 · 回答

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