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Augee · 2022年10月06日

老师这里第六年回转前面多交的DTL,不应该是10000+4000=14000才对吗

NO.PZ2016012102000133

问题如下:

Ted Ltd. recently purchased a manufactoring machine for $60,000, which is expected to generate annual cash inflow of $25,000 for six years. The firm will depreciate the machine over six years for accounting purpose. However, the tax authority estimates the machine's useful life of 5 years. Assume tax rate is 40%, and the machines has no salvage value. What is the income tax expense of Ted Ltd. in year 6 if straight-line method is used?

选项:

A.

$10,000.

B.

$5,200.

C.

$6,000.

解释:

C is correct.

考点: 递延所得税的计算

解析:题目问第六年的income tax expense,也就是financial accounting的所得税费用。

Income tax expense = Current tax expense + ΔDTL - ΔDTA

Current tax expense =Taxable income×Current tax rate


accounting base 和tax base 的数字指的是depreciable asset扣掉累积折旧的账面价值。第五年年末的时候,accounting base 账面价值还剩10000,tax base 账面已经是零,所以DTL算出来是4000,第六年年末的的时候accounting base和tax base都是零了,所以第六年就没有DTL了,也就是之前累积的DTL第六年实际上已经回转了。

前期税务局算的折旧费用多,公司交的税少,第六年的时候,税务局算的报表已经没有折旧费用了,所以算的应税所得就高了,公司应该交的税就高了,相当于是前期少交的税这一年要补交上了。所以第六年没有新增的DTL,反而是把以前攒下的DTL回转了,相当于△DTL就等于-4000,所以income tax expense是10,000-4,000=6000

第六年的current tax expense=25000×40%=10000

第六年的Income tax expense=10000+(-4000)=6000

  

1 个答案

Kiko_品职助教 · 2022年10月08日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


不是的。△DTL是等于-4000。你可以从公式的角度理解看:

从公式的角度,(AB-TB)*t =DTL,△DTL=期末DTL-期初DTL。期初AB账面价值还剩10000,TB账面0,所以期初DTL算出来是4000,期末AB和TB都是0,所以期末DTL是0,期末-期初=0-4000= - 4000

所以是10000-4000=6000

----------------------------------------------
努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

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