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Ash · 2022年10月02日

first call

NO.PZ2016031001000080

问题如下:

A bond with 5 years remaining until maturity is currently trading for 101 per 100 of par value. The bond offers a 6% coupon rate with interest paid semiannually. The bond is first callable in 3 years, and is callable after that date on coupon dates according to the following schedule:

The bond’s yield-to-worst is closest to:

选项:

A.

2.88%.

B.

5.77%.

C.

6.25%.

解释:

B is correct.

The yield-to-worst is 5.77%. The bond’s yield-to-worst is the lowest of the sequence of yields-to-call and the yield-to-maturity. From above, we have the following yield measures for this bond:

Yield-to-first-call: 6.25%

Yield-to-second-call: 5.94%

Yield-to-maturity: 5.77%

Thus, the yield-to-worst is 5.77%.

考点:YTW

解析:本题让计算 yield-to-worst,所以需要计算出每种情况下的收益再进行对比。

1、对于 yield-to-maturity:

N=10;PV= -101;PMT=3;FV=100 → CPT:I/Y =2.8835,但是要注意这是半年付息一次,所以年化后的 I/Y是5.767%

2、对于 yield-to-frist call:

N=6;PV= -101;PMT=3;FV=102 → CPT:I/Y =3.1229,所以年化后的 I/Y是6.246%

3、对于 yield-to-second call:

N=8;PV= -101;PMT=3;FV=101 → CPT:I/Y =2.97,所以年化后的 I/Y是5.94%

所以对比最差的是yield-to-maturity,即5.77%,故选项B正确。

first call 是在 year end of 3,那这个时候计算YTM , N 不是应该4吗,为什么是6?

1 个答案

吴昊_品职助教 · 2022年10月08日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


第三年年末call回,债券的存续期就变成了三年。这个债券是半年付息一次的,所以现金流期数是3*2=6。

你可以和不call回债券做类比,如果不call回,债券存续期就是5年,半年付息一次,现金流期数为5*2=10.

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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2024-07-04 12:44 1 · 回答

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2024-05-26 16:54 1 · 回答

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2020-07-03 15:23 1 · 回答