开发者:上海品职教育科技有限公司 隐私政策详情

应用版本:4.2.11(IOS)|3.2.5(安卓)APP下载

庄鑫 · 2022年09月29日

求解

NO.PZ2015121802000054

问题如下:

To evaluate the performance of an investment, an analyst has forecasted the return of an assets and market portfolio on different economic conditions and the probability.

Estimation of an asset:

Estimation of market portfolio:

Assuming the risk-free rate is 5%, the risky asset's beta is 1.2, and market portfolio is correctly priced, which investment decision should the analyst make?

选项:

A.

The analyst should buy the risky asset because its expected return is higher than its required return in equilibrium.

B.

The analyst should short the risky asset because its expected return is less than the expected return on the market portfolio.

C.

The analyst should short the risky asset because its expected return can not compensate for its systematic risk totally.

解释:

C is correct.

The estimated return of risky asset is 6%*(10%) + 10%*(45%) + 15%*(45%) = 11.85%.

The expected return of market portfolio is 3%*(10%) + 12%*(45%) + 14%*(0.45) = 12%. 

According to the CAPM, the expected return on the risky asset is 5% + 1.2*(12% - 5%) = 13.4%.

Because the analyst's forecast return on the risky asset is less than its expected return derived from CAPM, the asset is overvalued and the analyst should sell it.

Q1:estimated return of risky asset is 6%*(10%) + 10%*(45%) + 15%*(45%) = 11.85% expected return of market portfolio is 3%*(10%) + 12%*(45%) + 14%*(0.45) = 12%. 

同样的计算公式,为啥一个叫做estimated一个叫做expected?这咋区别?

Q2:expected return on the risky asset is 5% + 1.2*(12% - 5%) = 13.4%. expected return of market portfolio is 3%*(10%) + 12%*(45%) + 14%*(0.45) = 12%. 这两个都叫做expected为啥计算公式又不一样?这咋理解?

Q3:反正判断投资者到底是买入还是卖出的标准,就是拿合理收益率(CAPM)和实际预测收益率(E(R))作比较?前者大就买入,后者大就卖出?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Kiko_品职助教 · 2022年10月12日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


不需要太纠结到底是estimated还是expected。这道题的逻辑就是你Q3里面说的那样。就是拿合理收益率和实际预测出来的收益率作比较。但是结论反了,前者大说明实际收益率没有那么高,是高估,是卖出。后者大说明低估,是买入。

----------------------------------------------
加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

  • 1

    回答
  • 0

    关注
  • 406

    浏览
相关问题

NO.PZ2015121802000054问题如下To evaluate the performanof investment, analyst hforecastethe return of assets anmarket portfolio on fferent economic contions anthe probability.Estimation of asset:Estimation of market portfolio:Assuming the risk-free rate is 5%, the risky asset's beta is 1.2, anmarket portfolio is correctly price whiinvestment cision shoulthe analyst make?A.The analyst shoulbuy the risky asset because its expectereturn is higher thits requirereturn in equilibrium.B.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn is less ththe expectereturn on the market portfolio.C.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn cnot compensate for its systematic risk totally.C is correct.The estimatereturn of risky asset is 6%*(10%) + 10%*(45%) + 15%*(45%) = 11.85%. The expectereturn of market portfolio is 3%*(10%) + 12%*(45%) + 14%*(0.45) = 12%. Accorng to the CAPM, the expectereturn on the risky asset is 5% + 1.2*(12% - 5%) = 13.4%. Because the analyst's forecast return on the risky asset is less thits expectereturn rivefrom CAPM, the asset is overvalueanthe analyst shoulsell it.可以一下吗。。。。

2024-06-18 10:13 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2015121802000054问题如下 To evaluate the performanof investment, analyst hforecastethe return of assets anmarket portfolio on fferent economic contions anthe probability.Estimation of asset:Estimation of market portfolio:Assuming the risk-free rate is 5%, the risky asset's beta is 1.2, anmarket portfolio is correctly price whiinvestment cision shoulthe analyst make?A.The analyst shoulbuy the risky asset because its expectereturn is higher thits requirereturn in equilibrium.B.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn is less ththe expectereturn on the market portfolio.C.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn cnot compensate for its systematic risk totally.C is correct.The estimatereturn of risky asset is 6%*(10%) + 10%*(45%) + 15%*(45%) = 11.85%. The expectereturn of market portfolio is 3%*(10%) + 12%*(45%) + 14%*(0.45) = 12%. Accorng to the CAPM, the expectereturn on the risky asset is 5% + 1.2*(12% - 5%) = 13.4%. Because the analyst's forecast return on the risky asset is less thits expectereturn rivefrom CAPM, the asset is overvalueanthe analyst shoulsell it.C的意思明白,但是B就是我们为什么选择它的最真实原因啊

2024-06-03 13:23 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2015121802000054 问题如下 To evaluate the performanof investment, analyst hforecastethe return of assets anmarket portfolio on fferent economic contions anthe probability.Estimation of asset:Estimation of market portfolio:Assuming the risk-free rate is 5%, the risky asset's beta is 1.2, anmarket portfolio is correctly price whiinvestment cision shoulthe analyst make? A.The analyst shoulbuy the risky asset because its expectereturn is higher thits requirereturn in equilibrium. B.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn is less ththe expectereturn on the market portfolio. C.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn cnot compensate for its systematic risk totally. C is correct.The estimatereturn of risky asset is 6%*(10%) + 10%*(45%) + 15%*(45%) = 11.85%. The expectereturn of market portfolio is 3%*(10%) + 12%*(45%) + 14%*(0.45) = 12%. Accorng to the CAPM, the expectereturn on the risky asset is 5% + 1.2*(12% - 5%) = 13.4%. Because the analyst's forecast return on the risky asset is less thits expectereturn rivefrom CAPM, the asset is overvalueanthe analyst shoulsell it. 对系统性风险的补偿就是CAPM计算出来的预期收益率,那为什么C是expectereturn无法补偿系统性风险,而不是estimatereturn呢

2024-05-25 02:17 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2015121802000054 问题如下 To evaluate the performanof investment, analyst hforecastethe return of assets anmarket portfolio on fferent economic contions anthe probability.Estimation of asset:Estimation of market portfolio:Assuming the risk-free rate is 5%, the risky asset's beta is 1.2, anmarket portfolio is correctly price whiinvestment cision shoulthe analyst make? A.The analyst shoulbuy the risky asset because its expectereturn is higher thits requirereturn in equilibrium. B.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn is less ththe expectereturn on the market portfolio. C.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn cnot compensate for its systematic risk totally. C is correct.The estimatereturn of risky asset is 6%*(10%) + 10%*(45%) + 15%*(45%) = 11.85%. The expectereturn of market portfolio is 3%*(10%) + 12%*(45%) + 14%*(0.45) = 12%. Accorng to the CAPM, the expectereturn on the risky asset is 5% + 1.2*(12% - 5%) = 13.4%. Because the analyst's forecast return on the risky asset is less thits expectereturn rivefrom CAPM, the asset is overvalueanthe analyst shoulsell it. 老师,我看了别的解析,不太清楚我这样的理解是否正确11.85%是分析师估计出来的收益率,而CAPM计算的是13.4%,所以估计的收益率比合理计算的收益率低。低收益率就是因为资产的价格高于市场预期?所以实际上就是overvalue需要卖出吗?

2024-04-28 17:32 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2015121802000054问题如下To evaluate the performanof investment, analyst hforecastethe return of assets anmarket portfolio on fferent economic contions anthe probability.Estimation of asset:Estimation of market portfolio:Assuming the risk-free rate is 5%, the risky asset's beta is 1.2, anmarket portfolio is correctly price whiinvestment cision shoulthe analyst make?A.The analyst shoulbuy the risky asset because its expectereturn is higher thits requirereturn in equilibrium.B.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn is less ththe expectereturn on the market portfolio.C.The analyst shoulshort the risky asset because its expectereturn cnot compensate for its systematic risk totally.C is correct.The estimatereturn of risky asset is 6%*(10%) + 10%*(45%) + 15%*(45%) = 11.85%. The expectereturn of market portfolio is 3%*(10%) + 12%*(45%) + 14%*(0.45) = 12%. Accorng to the CAPM, the expectereturn on the risky asset is 5% + 1.2*(12% - 5%) = 13.4%. Because the analyst's forecast return on the risky asset is less thits expectereturn rivefrom CAPM, the asset is overvalueanthe analyst shoulsell it.Accorng to the CAPM, the expectereturn on the risky asset is 5% + 1.2*(12% - 5%) = 13.4%.。这里的Rm为12%,是怎么拿到的

2024-03-10 21:44 1 · 回答