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六粒橙 · 2018年04月10日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000009 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

请问在PV=FV(1+r)-N公式中的FV的数值为什么和上面算出来的PV数值相等?

3 个答案
已采纳答案

源_品职助教 · 2018年04月11日

因为在运用永续年金计算的PV,就默认了计算出的PV的时间点,是在第一笔现金流的前一期。本题就是第五期的前一期第四期。

六粒橙 · 2018年04月12日

谢谢

源_品职助教 · 2018年04月12日

不客气。

源_品职助教 · 2018年04月10日

因为第一步计算出来的PV133.33是在T=4时刻的现值。但是相对于T=0时刻(题目求得是当前时刻的现值),它就是终值。所以两者相等。

六粒橙 · 2018年04月10日

为啥是T=4呀。题目中间不是说on five quarters吗。。

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