这个题目的解释不太明白，能否给解答添加一下详细过程-有问必答-品职教育专注CFA ESG FRM CPA 考研等财经培训课程

NO.PZ201602270200001902 问题如下 2. Baseon Exhibits 2 an3 anusing Metho1, the amount (in absolute terms) whithe Hutto-Barkley corporate bonis mispriceis closest to: A.0.3368 per 100 of pvalue. B.0.4682 per 100 of pvalue. C.0.5156 per 100 of pvalue. C is correct.The first step in the solution is to finthe correspot rate (zero-coupon rates) for eayear’s cash flow. The benchmark bon in Exhibit 2 are conveniently pricepso the yiel to maturity anthe coupon rates on the bon are the same. Because the one-yeissue honly one cash flow remaining, the YTM equals the spot rate of 3% (or z1z_1z1= 3%). The spot rates for Ye2 ( z2z_2z2) anYe3 (z3z_3z3 ) are calculatefollows: beginarrayl100=41.0300+104(1+z2)2;z2=4.02%100=51.0300+5(1.0402)2+105(1+z3)3;z3=5.07%begin{array}{l}100 = \frac{4}{{1.0300}} + \frac{{104}}{{{{(1 + {z_2})}^2}}};{z_2} = 4.02\% \\100 = \frac{5}{{1.0300}} + \frac{5}{{{{(1.0402)}^2}}} + \frac{{105}}{{{{(1 + {z_3})}^3}}};{z_3} = 5.07\% beginarrayl100=1.03004+(1+z2)2104;z2=4.02%100=1.03005+(1.0402)25+(1+z3)3105;z3=5.07%The correarbitrage-free prifor the Hutto-Barkley Inbonis:P0=3(1.0300)+3(1.0402)2+103(1.0507)3=94.4828P_0=\frac3{(1.0300)}+\frac3{{(1.0402)}^2}+\frac{103}{{(1.0507)}^3}=94.4828P0=(1.0300)3+(1.0402)23+(1.0507)3103=94.4828Therefore, the bonis misprice94.4828 – 94.9984 = –0.5156 per 100 of pvalue.A is incorrebecause the correspot rates are not calculateaninstethe Hutto-Barkley Inbonis scounteusing the respective YTM for eamaturity. Therefore, this lea to incorremispricing of 94.6616 – 94.9984 = –0.3368 per 100 of pvalue.B is incorrebecause the spot rates are riveusing the coupon rate for Ye3 (maturity) insteof using eayear’s respective coupon rate to employ the bootstrmethology. This lea to incorremispricing of 94.5302 – 94.9984 = –0.4682 per 100 of pvalue. 公式完全正确，但我每步计算都保留了小数点后四位，结果算出来的结果更接近B。后来我把中间步骤保留小数点后两位，再计算基本是C。所以到底怎么保留小数点?

2024-04-12 05:45 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201602270200001902 问题如下 2. Baseon Exhibits 2 an3 anusing Metho1, the amount (in absolute terms) whithe Hutto-Barkley corporate bonis mispriceis closest to: A.0.3368 per 100 of pvalue. B.0.4682 per 100 of pvalue. C.0.5156 per 100 of pvalue. C is correct.The first step in the solution is to finthe correspot rate (zero-coupon rates) for eayear’s cash flow. The benchmark bon in Exhibit 2 are conveniently pricepso the yiel to maturity anthe coupon rates on the bon are the same. Because the one-yeissue honly one cash flow remaining, the YTM equals the spot rate of 3% (or z1z_1z1= 3%). The spot rates for Ye2 ( z2z_2z2) anYe3 (z3z_3z3 ) are calculatefollows: beginarrayl100=41.0300+104(1+z2)2;z2=4.02%100=51.0300+5(1.0402)2+105(1+z3)3;z3=5.07%begin{array}{l}100 = \frac{4}{{1.0300}} + \frac{{104}}{{{{(1 + {z_2})}^2}}};{z_2} = 4.02\% \\100 = \frac{5}{{1.0300}} + \frac{5}{{{{(1.0402)}^2}}} + \frac{{105}}{{{{(1 + {z_3})}^3}}};{z_3} = 5.07\% beginarrayl100=1.03004+(1+z2)2104;z2=4.02%100=1.03005+(1.0402)25+(1+z3)3105;z3=5.07%The correarbitrage-free prifor the Hutto-Barkley Inbonis:P0=3(1.0300)+3(1.0402)2+103(1.0507)3=94.4828P_0=\frac3{(1.0300)}+\frac3{{(1.0402)}^2}+\frac{103}{{(1.0507)}^3}=94.4828P0=(1.0300)3+(1.0402)23+(1.0507)3103=94.4828Therefore, the bonis misprice94.4828 – 94.9984 = –0.5156 per 100 of pvalue.A is incorrebecause the correspot rates are not calculateaninstethe Hutto-Barkley Inbonis scounteusing the respective YTM for eamaturity. Therefore, this lea to incorremispricing of 94.6616 – 94.9984 = –0.3368 per 100 of pvalue.B is incorrebecause the spot rates are riveusing the coupon rate for Ye3 (maturity) insteof using eayear’s respective coupon rate to employ the bootstrmethology. This lea to incorremispricing of 94.5302 – 94.9984 = –0.4682 per 100 of pvalue. 老师这题我用的题目要求的hb公司处以benchmark'的yiel2年算出的spot rate和3年的spot rate，但是我看到答案写的是用2.3年的yiel作为2年，3年的cupon然后分别求出的spot rate，嗯我有些分不清什么时候用benchmark的coupon什么时候用给的公司的coupon

2024-02-25 17:44 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201602270200001902 问题如下 2. Baseon Exhibits 2 an3 anusing Metho1, the amount (in absolute terms) whithe Hutto-Barkley corporate bonis mispriceis closest to: A.0.3368 per 100 of pvalue. B.0.4682 per 100 of pvalue. C.0.5156 per 100 of pvalue. C is correct.The first step in the solution is to finthe correspot rate (zero-coupon rates) for eayear’s cash flow. The benchmark bon in Exhibit 2 are conveniently pricepso the yiel to maturity anthe coupon rates on the bon are the same. Because the one-yeissue honly one cash flow remaining, the YTM equals the spot rate of 3% (or z1z_1z1= 3%). The spot rates for Ye2 ( z2z_2z2) anYe3 (z3z_3z3 ) are calculatefollows: beginarrayl100=41.0300+104(1+z2)2;z2=4.02%100=51.0300+5(1.0402)2+105(1+z3)3;z3=5.07%begin{array}{l}100 = \frac{4}{{1.0300}} + \frac{{104}}{{{{(1 + {z_2})}^2}}};{z_2} = 4.02\% \\100 = \frac{5}{{1.0300}} + \frac{5}{{{{(1.0402)}^2}}} + \frac{{105}}{{{{(1 + {z_3})}^3}}};{z_3} = 5.07\% beginarrayl100=1.03004+(1+z2)2104;z2=4.02%100=1.03005+(1.0402)25+(1+z3)3105;z3=5.07%The correarbitrage-free prifor the Hutto-Barkley Inbonis:P0=3(1.0300)+3(1.0402)2+103(1.0507)3=94.4828P_0=\frac3{(1.0300)}+\frac3{{(1.0402)}^2}+\frac{103}{{(1.0507)}^3}=94.4828P0=(1.0300)3+(1.0402)23+(1.0507)3103=94.4828Therefore, the bonis misprice94.4828 – 94.9984 = –0.5156 per 100 of pvalue.A is incorrebecause the correspot rates are not calculateaninstethe Hutto-Barkley Inbonis scounteusing the respective YTM for eamaturity. Therefore, this lea to incorremispricing of 94.6616 – 94.9984 = –0.3368 per 100 of pvalue.B is incorrebecause the spot rates are riveusing the coupon rate for Ye3 (maturity) insteof using eayear’s respective coupon rate to employ the bootstrmethology. This lea to incorremispricing of 94.5302 – 94.9984 = –0.4682 per 100 of pvalue. 1、他不是说了COUPON是3%吗？2、YTM和这个COUPON RATE为什么又等同了？为什么可以认为第二年、第三年的COUPON RATE是YTM？3、benchmark pcurve，为什么表格里面又说是YTM,？YTM和这个COUPON RATE为什么又等同了？4、为什么不能用YTM直接算，之前的答案并没有很清晰回答，感觉像是诡辩？他不是说了COUPON是3%吗？，那不是三年的话，3年的COUPO都是3%？，对应的YTM就是5%？

2022-08-14 20:03 2 · 回答

NO.PZ201602270200001902 0.4682 per 100 of pvalue. 0.5156 per 100 of pvalue. C is correct. The first step in the solution is to finthe correspot rate (zero-coupon rates) for eayear’s cash flow. The benchmark bon in Exhibit 2 are conveniently pricepso the yiel to maturity anthe coupon rates on the bon are the same. Because the one-yeissue honly one cash flow remaining, the YTM equals the spot rate of 3% (or z1z_1z1= 3%). The spot rates for Ye2 ( z2z_2z2) anYe3 ( z3z_3z3 ) are calculatefollows: beginarrayl100=41.0300+104(1+z2)2;z2=4.02%100=51.0300+5(1.0402)2+105(1+z3)3;z3=5.07%begin{array}{l}100 = \frac{4}{{1.0300}} + \frac{{104}}{{{{(1 + {z_2})}^2}}};{z_2} = 4.02\% \\100 = \frac{5}{{1.0300}} + \frac{5}{{{{(1.0402)}^2}}} + \frac{{105}}{{{{(1 + {z_3})}^3}}};{z_3} = 5.07\% beginarrayl100=1.03004+(1+z2)2104;z2=4.02%100=1.03005+(1.0402)25+(1+z3)3105;z3=5.07% The correarbitrage-free prifor the Hutto-Barkley Inbonis: P0=3(1.0300)+3(1.0402)2+103(1.0507)3=94.4828P_0=\frac3{(1.0300)}+\frac3{{(1.0402)}^2}+\frac{103}{{(1.0507)}^3}=94.4828P0=(1.0300)3+(1.0402)23+(1.0507)3103=94.4828 Therefore, the bonis misprice94.4828 – 94.9984 = –0.5156 per 100 of pvalue. A is incorrebecause the correspot rates are not calculateaninstethe Hutto-Barkley Inbonis scounteusing the respective YTM for eamaturity. Therefore, this lea to incorremispricing of 94.6616 – 94.9984 = –0.3368 per 100 of pvalue. B is incorrebecause the spot rates are riveusing the coupon rate for Ye3 (maturity) insteof using eayear’s respective coupon rate to employ the bootstrmethology. This lea to incorremispricing of 94.5302 – 94.9984 = –0.4682 per 100 of pvalue.何老师上课不是说YTM是sport rate的打包价么，为什么不可以直接用第三年的YTM 5%来进行折现呢？

2021-07-23 19:02 1 · 回答

这个题目的解释不太明白，能否给解答添加一下详细过程

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