问题如下图：
选项：
A. 
B. 
C. 
解释：
2014年底时，P=B,P/B=1，ROE=RE所以，可以推出来RI=0，也就是说2014年以后RI立刻将为0，PVRI=0，这个能明白。但是RI4=1.608不用折现呢？PVRI不应该是等于RI4*W/(1+R-W)么
NO.PZ201512300100001208问题如下8. Unr Scenario 2, the intrinsic value per share of the equity of Amersheen is closest to:A.R13.29.B.R15.57.C.R16.31.the multistage resiincome mol results in intrinsic value of R13.29. The multistage resiincome mol, is: The first step is to calculate resiincome per share for years 2012 2014:ROE = earnings / book valueGrowth rate = ROE × retention rateRetention rate = 1 (vin/earnings)Book valuet = book valuet 1 + earningst 1 vint 1Resiincome per share = EPS equity charge per shareEquity charge per share = book value per sharet × cost of equityUnr Scenario 2, the enof 2014, it is assumethshare priwill equto book value per share. This results in the seconterm in theequation above, the present value of the terminvalue, being equto zero.Then, intrinsic value per share is:V0=R7.60+R2.52(1.10)+R2.31(1.10)2+R1.98(1.10)3=R13.29题目已经说了2014年年底价格等于面值即RI为0，为何答案详解中还计算出2014年的RI
NO.PZ201512300100001208 share price等于book value就说明终值是0吗？
NO.PZ201512300100001208 Unr Scenario 2, the enof 2014, it is assumethshare priwill equto book value per share. 这说明什么呢？
这个地方不太明白，题目中给出了2014末之后P=B，那就说w=0了啊，那么题目咋又给出了w=0.7？这是啥意思啊。。。。
it is assumethshare priwill equto book value per share. This results in the seconterm in the equation above, the present value of the terminvalue, being equto zero. 怎么理解？
