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alice006 · 2018年04月02日

问一道题:NO.PZ201602270200002104 第4小题 [ CFA II ]

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问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:


老师,我计算V0的时候使用V-V+的平均数得到的,答案碰巧对了。是不是不能这么计算?

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已采纳答案

李宗_品职助教 · 2018年04月02日

你好同学,不能这样计算,这个只是凑巧。(运气也是好的,哈哈哈~)

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NO.PZ201602270200002104 问题如下 4. The effective ration of Bon#4 is closest to: A.0.76. B.1.88. C.3.77. B is correct.The effective ration of Bon#4 ccalculateusing Equation 3 from the reang, where Δ Curve is 20 bps, PV– is 101.238, anPV+ is 100.478. PV0PV_0PV0​, the current full priof the bon(i.e., with no shift), is not given but it ccalculateusing Exhibit 3 follows: S= Interest Rate ScenarioC=Cash Flow (% of par)R=One-yeInterest rate (%)V= Value of the Callable Bons Future Cash Flows (% of par)Thus, the effective ration of Bon#4 is:Effective ration = frac101.238−100.4782×(0.0020)×(100.873)=1.88frac{101.238-100.478}{2\times(0.0020)\times(100.873)}=1.88frac101.238−100.4782×(0.0020)×(100.873)=1.88 用二叉树计算callable bonfull price结果是大于100 的。此时full price不用遵循callable par?

2023-08-17 06:40 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201602270200002104问题如下4. The effective ration of Bon#4 is closest to:A.0.76.B.1.88.C.3.77.B is correct.The effective ration of Bon#4 ccalculateusing Equation 3 from the reang, where Δ Curve is 20 bps, PV– is 101.238, anPV+ is 100.478. PV0PV_0PV0​, the current full priof the bon(i.e., with no shift), is not given but it ccalculateusing Exhibit 3 follows: S= Interest Rate ScenarioC=Cash Flow (% of par)R=One-yeInterest rate (%)V= Value of the Callable Bons Future Cash Flows (% of par)Thus, the effective ration of Bon#4 is:Effective ration = frac101.238−100.4782×(0.0020)×(100.873)=1.88frac{101.238-100.478}{2\times(0.0020)\times(100.873)}=1.88frac101.238−100.4782×(0.0020)×(100.873)=1.88题目中二叉树,是不是里面所有含权债券都适用这个二叉树

2023-03-25 14:17 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201602270200002104 问题如下 4. The effective ration of Bon#4 is closest to: A.0.76. B.1.88. C.3.77. B is correct.The effective ration of Bon#4 ccalculateusing Equation 3 from the reang, where Δ Curve is 20 bps, PV– is 101.238, anPV+ is 100.478. PV0PV_0PV0​, the current full priof the bon(i.e., with no shift), is not given but it ccalculateusing Exhibit 3 follows: S= Interest Rate ScenarioC=Cash Flow (% of par)R=One-yeInterest rate (%)V= Value of the Callable Bons Future Cash Flows (% of par)Thus, the effective ration of Bon#4 is:Effective ration = frac101.238−100.4782×(0.0020)×(100.873)=1.88frac{101.238-100.478}{2\times(0.0020)\times(100.873)}=1.88frac101.238−100.4782×(0.0020)×(100.873)=1.88 1、提供考点相关内容并解析,怎么和我这边的公式好像不太对的上2、什么是frac,麻烦负责地解析答案

2022-08-14 21:13 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201602270200002104

2022-01-20 17:23 1 · 回答

可是callable bon不是最后的答案不能超过100吗?

2020-01-30 20:34 1 · 回答