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小枕头 · 2018年03月28日

问一道题:NO.PZ201512300100001208 第8小题 [ CFA II ]

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

关于最后BVPS=price,作者的意思是怎么推导出来最后的RI=0的?这点在题目的解答中没有展开解释。

如果站在2014年年末看未来估值,price=intrinsic value=Bo+[(ROE-re)*Bo*(1+g)]/(r+g)

又因为届时price=Bo

所以怎么能推出ROE=re?

我的算法是将最后的price(10.05)+1.979,并于之前每年的RI,即2.52,2.308一起折现,NPV=13.23,再加上最初的BV=7.6,intrinsic value为13.23+7.6=20.83。亲爱的学霸能不能帮助我看看我哪里算错了 多谢多谢!

1 个答案
已采纳答案

吴昊_品职助教 · 2018年03月29日

V0=B0+PVRI 因为V0=B0,所以等式第二项整体为0,也就是RI的现值为0,RIt=(ROE-re)*Bt-1=0,因此ROE=re=10%

RI模型由两部分构成,1.BV0;2.将来RI的现值,是超过机会成本的增值部分,不会包含最后的price。

加油~

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2024-10-01 18:31 1 · 回答

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2023-09-02 22:15 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201512300100001208 share price等于book value就说明终值是0吗?

2022-03-03 17:19 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201512300100001208 Unr Scenario 2, the enof 2014, it is assumethshare priwill equto book value per share. 这说明什么呢?

2021-08-20 07:11 2 · 回答

这个地方不太明白,题目中给出了2014末之后P=B,那就说w=0了啊,那么题目咋又给出了w=0.7?这是啥意思啊。。。。

2020-05-31 11:44 1 · 回答