问一道题：NO.PZ2015122802000050 [ CFA I ]

NO.PZ2015122802000050问题如下analyst gathers the following ta for a value-weighteinx:The return on the value-weighteinx over the periois:A.7.1%.B.11.0%.C.21.4%. is correct.It is the percentage change in the market value over the perioMarket value beginning of perio (20 × 300) + (50 × 300) + (26 × 2,000) = 73,000Market value enof perio (22 × 300) + (48 × 300) + (30 × 2,000) = 81,000Percentage change is 81,000/73,000 – 1 = 0.1096 or 11.0 percent with rounng.考点市值加权的指数1、value-weighteinx就是market-capitalization weighting市值加权的意思。2、很多同学问为何上述计算要“减 1”。我们现在要求的是收益率，81000-73000=8000才是收益，所以收益率等于8000/73000=11%，因此上述公式需要减掉1。 如题看题目就行 我已经写了

NO.PZ2015122802000050问题如下analyst gathers the following ta for a value-weighteinx:The return on the value-weighteinx over the periois:A.7.1%.B.11.0%.C.21.4%. is correct.It is the percentage change in the market value over the perioMarket value beginning of perio (20 × 300) + (50 × 300) + (26 × 2,000) = 73,000Market value enof perio (22 × 300) + (48 × 300) + (30 × 2,000) = 81,000Percentage change is 81,000/73,000 – 1 = 0.1096 or 11.0 percent with rounng.考点市值加权的指数1、value-weighteinx就是market-capitalization weighting市值加权的意思。2、很多同学问为何上述计算要“减 1”。我们现在要求的是收益率，81000-73000=8000才是收益，所以收益率等于8000/73000=11%，因此上述公式需要减掉1。 什么时候用（期末总值-期初总值）/期初总值 什么时候用（期末总值/期初总值）-1算啊 我好晕

81000/73000之后为什么还要剪1啊，书上的公式没有减1啊

    这题我是用capitalization-weighte方法计算出来的，答案也是对的。value-weighte体是指什么？感谢解答。