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ruby5ltc · 2022年06月03日

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NO.PZ2017092702000030

问题如下:

At the beginning of Year 1, a fund has $10 million under management; it earns a return of 14% for the year. The fund attracts another $100 million at the start of Year 2 and earns a return of 8% for that year. The money-weighted rate of return is most likely:

选项:

A.

less than the time-weighted rate of return.

B.

the same as the time-weighted rate of return.

C.

greater than the time-weighted rate of return.

解释:

A is correct.

The money-weighted rate of return is found by setting the present value (PV) of investments into the fund equal to the PV of the fund’s terminal value. Because most of the investment came during Year 2, the measure will be biased toward the performance of Year 2. Set the PV of investments equal to the PV of the fund’s terminal value: 10+1001+r=10×1.14×1.08+100×1.08(1+r)210+\frac{100}{1+r}=\frac{10\times1.14\times1.08+100\times1.08}{{(1+r)}^2}   Solving for r results in r = 8.53%. The time-weighted return of the fund is =(1.14)(1.08)21=10.96\sqrt[2]{{(1.14)}{(1.08)}}-1=10.96

收益能否算作现金流?为什么第一年的收益没算,而第二年的收益算作现金流了呢?

1 个答案

Kiko_品职助教 · 2022年06月04日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


期间收益我们都是假设以相同收益率做再投资的,所以在算MWRR得时候期间收益不算现金流。但是这道题第二年我们是默认把钱连本带利都取出来了。所以算了。

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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2023-11-11 19:27 2 · 回答

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