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Ethan · 2022年05月29日

为什么不选2

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NO.PZ201601050100001202

问题如下:

Determine the most appropriate currency management strategy for Bhatt. Justify your response.


选项:

解释:


Passive hedging is not appropriate because with this approach, the goal is to keep the portfolio’s currency exposures close, if not equal to, those of a benchmark portfolio used to evaluate performance. Passive hedging is a rules-based approach that removes all discretion from the portfolio manager, regardless of the manager’s market opinion on future movements in exchange rates. In this case, Bhatt has granted Darden the discretion to manage currency exposures within a range of plus or minus 25% from the neutral benchmark position.

A discretionary hedging approach is not appropriate because Bhatt has granted Darden more than limited discretion (plus or minus 25% from the neutral position), indicative of an active currency management approach. The discretion granted suggests that Darden’s primary goal is to take currency risks and manage them for profit with a secondary goal of protecting the portfolio from currency risk. The primary goal of a discretionary hedging approach is to protect the portfolio from currency risk while secondarily seeking alpha within limited bounds.

中文解析:

积极的货币管理是最合适的货币管理策略。

首先,被动管理要求与benchmark完全保持一致,而不会允许上下25%的自由度,因此被动管理的方法也不对。

在主动管理这种方法下,投资组合经理可以通过主动承担外汇风险来获取利润。

主动管理的首要目标是获取超额回报。它和Discretionary hedging的方法不同,Discretionary hedging的方法其主要目标是保护投资组合免受货币风险,其次是在有限的范围内寻求阿尔法。

因此可以看到主动管理和Discretionary hedging两种方法的侧重点不同。

本题中Bhatt授予达顿的管理自由是上下25%的范围,这表明了一种积极的货币管理方法。说明达顿的首要目标是承通过外汇管理来获取超额回报,其次是保护投资组合免受汇率风险的影响。所以Discretionary hedging的方法不合适,应该选择主动管理的方法。

我知道2和3的主次目标是相反的,关键是分析题干中降风险和增收哪个是主/次。答案说“Bhatt has granted Darden more than limited discretion (plus or minus 25% from the neutral position), indicative of an active currency management approach. The discretion granted suggests that Darden’s primary goal is to take currency risks and manage them for profit with a secondary goal of protecting the portfolio from currency risk.”,这何以见得,感觉无中生有?

文中先说“His investment policy statement (IPS) allows for exibility in managing currency risk. ”重点还是管理风险,只是管理有一定灵活性。后面才说可以抓住这个机会。那么应该理解为,抓住这个机会只是“灵活性”的体现,总体还是服务于管理风险。我感觉2更合适。

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Hertz_品职助教 · 2022年05月30日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好

其实这道题目选择主动管理的题眼在“... within a range of plus or minus 25% from…”这里。

在我们没有办法明确的根据他的主次目标来判断的时候,这个允许基金经理自由发挥的范围变成了解题的题眼。

根据协会教材对应知识点的例题以及历届真题(之前笔考时代的真题)还有各种题目我们可以总结出来的规律是:25%的浮动范围属于一个较大的自由发挥范围,是可以选择主动管理的;而一个较小的范围,比如说3%的范围被认为是小的范围是选择discretionary currency management的。(为什么举例是3% 的范围,因为教材中在讲discretionary 方法的时候举例中用的范围便是这个取值)

这一点也不必纠结,因为题目肯定会给到一个很明确的可以判断的范围,要么是百分之二十几的范围,要么是百分之几的范围,可以很明确的判断是主动管理还是discretionary 方法的。

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